ICSE – Class 10 – Home Assignments

List of Assignments

Academic Year 2024 – 2025

April

Mathematics – Chapter 1 – GST

  • Q1. Fill in the blanks:

When the goods/services are sold for Rs. 15,000 under intra-state transaction from station A to station B and the rate of GST is 12%.

As per GST System

  • (a) S.P. at station A = 
  • (b) CGST = 6% of 15,000 = 
  • SGST = 6% of 15,000 = 
  • (c) C.P. at station B = 
  • (d) If profit = Rs. 5000
  • S.P. at station B = 
  • Now the same goods/services are moved under inter-state transaction from station B to station C and the rate of tax is 12%.
  • (e) GST = 
  • (f) C.P. at station C = 
  • Q2. Goods/services are sold from Agra (U.P.) to Kanpur (U.P.) for Rs. 20,000 and then from Kanpur to Jaipur (Rajasthan). If the rate of GST is 18% and the profit made at Kanpur is Rs. 5000, find:
    • (i) the net GST payable by the dealer at Kanpur.
    • (ii) the cost of goods/services at Jaipur.
  • Q3. Goods/services are sold from Kota (Rajasthan) to Mumbai for Rs. 20,000 and then from Mumbai to Pune. If the rate of GST is 12% and the profit made at Mumbai is Rs. 5000; find the net GST paid at Pune, if the dealer at Pune is the end-user.
  • Q4. A is a dealer in Banaras (U.P.). he supplies goods/services worth Rs. 8000 to a dealer B in Agra (U.P.). Dealer B, in turn, supplies the same goods/services to dealer C in Patna (Bihar) at a profit of Rs. 1200. Find the input and output taxes for the dealer C under GST system; if the rate of GST is 18% and C does not sell his goods/services further.

Mathematics – Chapter 2 – Banking

  • Q1. Pramod deposits Rs 600 per month in a Recurring Deposit Account for 4 years. If the rate of interest is 8% per year; calculate the maturity value of his account.
  • Q2. Ritu has a Recurring Deposit Account in a bank and deposits Rs 80 per month for 18 months. Find the rate of interest paid by the bank if the maturity value of account is Rs 1,554.
  • Q3. Mr. Bajaj needs Rs 30,000 after 2 years. What least money (in multiple of Rs 5) must he deposit every month in a recurring deposit account to get required money after 2 years, the rate of interest being 8% p.a.?
  • Q4. Mr. Richard has a recurring deposit account in a post office for 3 years at 7.5 % p.a. simple interest. If he gets Rs. 8,325 as interest at the time of maturity, find:
    • (i) the monthly installment
    • (ii) the amount of maturity

Mathematics – Chapter 2 – Banking

  • Q1. Manish opens a Recurring Deposit Account with the Bank of Rajasthan and deposits Rs. 600 per month for 20 months. Calculate the maturity value of this account, if the bank pays interest at the rate of 10% per annum.
  • Q2. Each of A and B both opened recurring deposit accounts in a bank. If A deposited Rs 1,200 per month for 3 years and B deposited Rs 1,500 per month for 2½ years; find, on maturity, who will get more amount and by how much? The rate of interest paid by the bank is 10% per annum.
  • Q3. Ashish deposits a certain sum of money every month is a Recurring Deposit Account for a period of 12 months. If the bank pays interest at the rate of 11% p.a. and Ashish gets Rs 12,715 as the maturity value of this account, what sum of money did he pay every month?
  • Q4. A man has a Recurring Deposit Account in a bank for 3½ years. If the rate of interest is 12% per annum and the man gets Rs 10,206 on maturity, find the value of monthly installments.

Chemistry – Chapter 2 – Chemical Bonding

  • Q1. 
    • (a) In the formation of magnesium chloride (by a direct combination between magnesium and chloride), name the substance that is oxidized and the substance that is reduced.
    • (b) What are the terms defined below?
      • (i) A bond formed by a shared pair of electrons, each bonding atom contributes one electron to the pair.
      • (ii) A bond formed by a shared pair of electrons with both electrons coming from the same atom.
  • Q2. 
    • (a) Select the correct answer from A, B, C and D. Metals lose electrons during ionisation _____. This change is called
      • A. Oxidation 
      • B. Reduction
      • C. Redox 
      • D. Displacement
    • (b) Select the right answer.
      •  i. Sodium chloride _______ (covalent bond / ionic bond / covalent and coordinate bond.)
      •  ii. Ammonium ion _______ (covalent bond / ionic bond / covalent and coordinate bond.)
      •  iii. Carbon tetrachloride _______ (covalent bond / ionic bond / covalent and coordinate bond.)
  • Q3. Define Reduction and Oxidation
  • Q4. State the conditions needed for the formation of:
    • Ionic bonds
    • Molecular bonds

Chemistry – Chapter 2 – Chemical Bonding

  • Q1. Draw an electron dot diagram of the structure of hydronium ion. State the type of bonding present in it.
  • Q2. 
    • (a) A chemical term for a bond formed by a shared pair of electrons with both electrons coming from the same atom.
    • (b) Among the compounds, identify the compound that has all three bonds [ionic, covalent and coordinate bond].
      • A. Ammonia 
      • B. Ammonium chloride
      • C. Sodium hydroxide 
      • D. Calcium chloride
  • Q3. Select the right answer.
    •  i. Sodium chloride _______ (covalent bond / ionic bond / covalent and coordinate bond.)
    •  ii. Ammonium ion _______ (covalent bond / ionic bond / covalent and coordinate bond.)
    •  iii. Carbon tetrachloride _______ (covalent bond / ionic bond / covalent and coordinate bond.)

Chemistry – Chapter 2 – Chemical Bonding

  • Q1. What do you understand by lone pair and shared pair?
  • Q2. State the type of bonding in the following molecules:
    • (a) Water 
    • (b) Calcium oxide
    • (c) Hydroxyl ion 
    • (d) Methane
    • (e) Ammonium ion 
    • (f) Ammonium chloride
  • Q3. Draw an electron dot diagram to show the structure of each of the following:
    • (i) Hydronium ions 
    • (ii) Ammonium ion
    • (iii) Hydroxyl ion
  • Q4. How many atoms of each kind are present in the following molecules: 
    • calcium oxide, 
    • chlorine, 
    • water, 
    • carbon tetrachloride?

Chemistry – Chapter 2 – Chemical Bonding

  • Q1. 
    • (a) How many atoms of each kind are present in the following molecules: calcium oxide, chlorine, water, carbon tetrachloride?
    • (b) How many electrons are required by each atom mentioned in (a) to attain the nearest noble gas configuration?

Physics – Chapter 2 – Work, Energy and Power

  • Q1. Define work. When is work said to be done by a force?
  • Q2. How is the work done by a force measured when
    • (i) force is in direction of displacement,
    • (ii) force is at an angle to the direction of displacement? Derive the formula with appropriate diagrams.
  • Q3. A body is acted upon by a force. State two conditions when the work done is zero.
  • Q4. State the condition when the work done by a force is (i) positive, (ii) negative. Explain with the help of examples.
  • Q5. When a body moves in a circular path, how much work is done by the body? Give reasons.
  • Q6. A satellite revolves around the earth in a circular orbit. What is the work done by the satellite? Give reason.
  • Q7. The work done by a fielder when he takes a catch in a cricket match, is negative. Explain.
  • Q8. What are the S.I. and C.G.S. units of work? How are they related? Establish the relationship.

Mathematics – Chapter 1 – GST

  • Q1. Fill in the blanks:
    • When the goods/services are sold for Rs. 15,000 under intra-state transaction from station A to station B and the rate of GST is 12%.
    • As per GST System
      • (a) S.P. at station A = ?
      • (b) CGST = 6% of 15,000 = ?
      • SGST = 6% of 15,000 = ?
      • (c) C.P. at station B = ?
      • (d) If profit = Rs. 5000
      • S.P. at station B = ?
    • Now the same goods/services are moved under inter-state transaction from station B to station C and the rate of tax is 12%.
      • (e) GST = ?
      • (f) C.P. at station C = ?
  • Q2. Goods/services are sold from Agra (U.P.) to Kanpur (U.P.) for Rs. 20,000 and then from Kanpur to Jaipur (Rajasthan). If the rate of GST is 18% and the profit made at Kanpur is Rs. 5000, find:
    • (i) the net GST payable by the dealer at Kanpur.
    • (ii) the cost of goods/services at Jaipur.
  • Q3. Goods/services are sold from Kota (Rajasthan) to Mumbai for Rs. 20,000 and then from Mumbai to Pune. If the rate of GST is 12% and the profit made at Mumbai is Rs. 5000; find the net GST paid at Pune, if the dealer at Pune is the end-user.
  • Q4. A is a dealer in Banaras (U.P.). he supplies goods/services worth Rs. 8000 to a dealer B in Agra (U.P.). Dealer B, in turn, supplies the same goods/services to dealer C in Patna (Bihar) at a profit of Rs. 1200. Find the input and output taxes for the dealer C under the GST system; if the rate of GST is 18% and C does not sell his goods/services further.

Mathematics – Chapter 1 – GST

  • Q1. The tax invoice of a telecom service in Meerut shows the cost of services provided by it as Rs. 750. If the GST rate is 18%, find the amount of the bill.
  • Q2. Mr. Pankaj took Health Insurance Policy for his family and paid Rs. 900 as SGST. Find the total annual premium paid by him for this policy, rate of GST being 18%.
  • Q3. Mr. Malik went on a tour to Goa. He took a room in a hotel for two days at the rate of Rs. 5000 per day. On the same day, his friend John also joined him. Hotel provided an extra bed charging Rs. 1000 per day for the bed. How much GST, at the rate of 28% is charged by the hotel in the bill to Mr. Malik for both the days?
  • Q4. Ashok went to see a movie. He wanted to purchase a movie ticket for Rs. 80. As the ticket for Rs. 80 was not available, he purchased a ticket for Rs. 120 of upper class. How much extra GST did he pay for the ticket? (GST for a ticket below Rs. 100 is 18% and GST for a ticket above Rs. 100 is 28%)

Physics – Chapter 1 – Force

  • Q1. The centre of gravity of a uniform ball is
    • (a) At its geometrical centre
    • (b) At its bottom
    • (c) At its topmost point
    • (d) At any point on its surface
  • Q2. The centre of gravity of a hollow cone of height h is at distance x from its vertex where the value of x is:
    • (a) h/3
    • (b) h/4
    • (c) 2h/3
    • (d) 3h/4
  • Q3. Explain the meaning of uniform circular motion. Why is such motion said to be accelerated?
  • Q4. Draw a neat labelled diagram for a particle moving in a circular path with a constant speed. In your diagram show the direction of velocity at any instant.

Physics – Chapter 1 – Force

  • Q1. Define the term ‘centre of gravity of a body’.
  • Q2. At which point is the centre of gravity situated in:
    • (a) A triangular lamina and
    • (b) A circular lamina?
  • Q3. Where is the centre of gravity of a uniform ring situated?
  • Q4. A square card board is suspended by passing a pin through a narrow hole at its one corner. Draw a diagram to show its rest position. In the diagram mark the point of suspension by the letter S and centre of gravity by the letter G.
  • Q5. State whether the following statements are true or false.
    • (i) ‘The position of the centre of gravity of a body remains unchanged even when the body is deformed’.
    • (ii) ‘The centre of gravity of a freely suspended body always lies vertically below the point of suspension’.

Physics – Chapter 1 – Force

  • Q1. Describe a simple experiment to verify the principle of moments, if you are supplied with a metre rule, a fulcrum and two springs with slotted weights.
  • Q2. Complete the following sentences:
    • (i) The S.I. unit of moment of force is _________.
    • (ii) In equilibrium algebraic sum of moments of all forces about the point of rotation is ______________.
    • (iii) In a beam balance when the beam is balanced in a horizontal position, it is in ____________equilibrium.
    • (iv) The moon revolving around the earth is in ____________ equilibrium.
  • Q3. Can the centre of gravity of a body be situated outside its material of the body? Give an example.
  • Q4. State factor on which the position of the centre of gravity of a body depend? Explain your answer with an example.
  • Q5. What is the position of the centre of gravity of a:
    • (a) rectangular lamina
    • (b) cylinder?

Chemistry – Chapter 01 – Periodic Table, Periodic Properties and Variations of Properties

  • Q1.
    (a) The number of electrons in the valence shell of a halogen is ………. [1, 7, 5, 4].
  • (b) Electronegativity across the period ………… [increases/decreases].
  • (c) Non-metallic character down the group ………… [increases/decreases].
  • (d) Atomic number of an element is 16. State the following:
    • (i) to which period it belongs
    • (ii) the number of valence electrons in the element
    • (iii) is the element metal or non-metal
  • Q2. 
    • (a) Metals are good _____________ (oxidizing agents/reducing agents) because they are electron __________ (acceptors/donors).
    • (b) An element with the atomic number 19 will most likely combine chemically with the element whose atomic number is:
      • (i) 17 (ii) 11 (iii) 18 (iv) 20 
    • (c) Rewrite the following sentences by using the correct symbol > (greater than) or < (less than) in the blanks given:
      • 1. The ionization potential of potassium is _________________ that of sodium.
      • 2. The electronegativity of iodine is ___________ that of Chlorine. 
    • (d) Fill in the blanks by selecting the correct word from the brackets:
      • (i) If an element has a low ionization energy then it is likely to be ______________ (metallic / non-metallic).
      • (ii) If an element has seven electrons in its outermost shell then it is likely to have the ______________ (largest / smallest) atomic size among all the elements in the same period. 
  • Q3. In Period 3 of the Periodic table, element B is placed to the left of element A. On the basis of this information, choose the correct word from the brackets to complete the following statements:
    • (i) The element B would have (lower /higher) metallic character than A.
    • (ii) The element A would probably have (lesser / higher) electron affinity than B.
    • (iii) The element A would have (greater /smaller) atomic size than B

Chemistry – Chapter 01 – Periodic Table, Periodic Properties and Variations of Properties

  • Q1. Name
    • (a) An alkali metal in period 3 and halogen in period 2
    • (b) The noble gas with 3 shells
    • (c) The non-metals present in period 2 and metals in period 3.
    • (d) The element of period 3 with valency 4.
    • (e) The element in period 3 which does not form an oxide.
    • (f) The element of lower nuclear charge out of Be and Mg.
    • (g) Which has higher E.A. Fluorine or Neon?
    • (h) Which has maximum metallic character Na, Li or K?
  • Q2. Arrange the following as per instructions given in the brackets.
    • (a) Mg, Cl, Na, S, Si (increasing order of atomic size)
    • (b) Cs, Na, Li, K, Rb (increasing metallic character)
    • (c) Na, K, Cl, S, Si (increasing ionisation potential)
    • (d) Cl, F, Br, I (increasing electron affinity)
    • (e) Cs, Na, Li, K, Rb (decreasing electronegativity) 
  • Q3. Choose the word or phrase from the brackets which correctly completes each of the following statements:
    • (a) The element below sodium in the same group would be expected to have a …………… (lower/higher) electro-negativity than sodium, and the element above chlorine would be expected to have a (lower/higher) ionisation potential than chlorine.
    • (b) On moving from left to right in a given period, the number of shells …………….. (remains the same/increases decreases).
    • (c) On moving down a group, the number of valence electrons ……………… (remains the same/increases/decreases).
    • (d) Metals are good …………….. (oxidising agents/reducing agents) because they are electron …………. (acceptors/donors). 
  • Q4. Among Period 2 elements A, B, C and D, the one which has high electron affinity is
    • Lithium B. Carbon
    • Fluorine D. Neon

Physics – Chapter 01 – Force

  • Q1. State the principle of moments. Name one device based on it.
  • Q2. Complete the following sentences:
    • (i) The S.I. unit of moment of force is _________.
    • (ii) In equilibrium, the algebraic sum of moments of all forces about the point of rotation is ______________.
    • (iii) In a beam balance when the beam is balanced in a horizontal position, it is in ____________equilibrium.
    • (iv) The moon revolving around the earth is in ____________ equilibrium.
  • Q3. The moment of a force of 10N about a fixed point O is 5Nm. Calculate the distance of the point O from the line of action of the force.
  • Q4. A steering wheel of diameter 0.5m is rotated anti-clockwise by applying two forces each of magnitude 5N. Draw a diagram to show the application of forces and calculate the moment of forces applied.

Physics – Chapter 01 – Force

  • Q1. Define the moment of a couple. Write its S.I unit.
  • Q2. Prove that:
    • Moment of couple = Force x Couple arm.
  • Q3. What do you mean by equilibrium of a body?
  • Q4. State the condition when a body is in 
    • (i) static, 
    • (ii) dynamic equilibrium. 
    • Give one example each of static and dynamic equilibrium.

Physics – Chapter 01 – Force

  • Q1. Define the moment of force and state its S.I. unit.
  • Q2. State the condition when applying a force, the body has:
    • (a)the translational motion,
    • (b)the rotational motion.
  • Q3. What do you understand by the clockwise and anticlockwise moment of force? When is it considered positive?
  • Q4. A spanner (or wrench) has a long handle. Why?

Academic Year 2023 – 2024

January

Examination time. No assignment in this period.

Mathematics – Chapter 18 – Tangents and Intersecting Chords

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Mathematics – Chapter 17 – Circles

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Mathematics – Chapter 8 – Remainder and Factor Theorems

  • Q1. Using the Remainder Theorem, factorize each of the following completely.
    • (i) 3×3 + 2×2 − 19x + 6
    • (ii) 2×3 + x2 – 13x + 6
    • (iii) 3×3 + 2×2 – 23x – 30
    • (iv) 4×3 + 7×2 – 36x – 63
    • (v) x3 + x2 – 4x – 4
  • Q2. Given that x – 2 and x + 1 are factors of f(x) = x3 + 3×2 + ax + b; calculate the values of a and b. Hence, find all the factors of f(x).
  • Q3. Find the value of ‘m’, if mx3 + 2×2 – 3 and x2 – mx + 4 leave the same remainder when each is divided by x – 2.

Mathematics – Chapter 3 – Shares and Dividend

  • Q1. By purchasing Rs 25 gas shares for Rs 40 each, a man gets 4 percent profit on his investment. What rate percent is the company paying? What is his dividend if he buys 60 shares?
  • Q2. A company declares 8 percent dividend to the shareholders. If a man receives Rs 2,840 as his dividend, find the nominal value of his shares.
  • Q3. How much should a man invest in Rs 100 shares selling at Rs 110 to obtain an annual income of Rs 1,680, if the dividend declared is 12%?
  • Q4. A company, with 10,000 shares of Rs 100 each, declares an annual dividend of 5%.
    • (i) What is the total amount of dividend paid by the company?
    • (ii) What should be the annual income of a man who has 72 shares in the company?
    • (iii) If he received only 4% of his investment, find the price he paid for each share.
  • Q5. Gagan invested 80% of his savings in 10% Rs.100 shares at 20% premium and the rest of his savings in 20% Rs.50 shares at Rs.20% discount. If his incomes from these shares is Rs.5,600 calculate:
    • (i) His investment in shares on the whole
    • (ii) The number of shares of first kind that he bought
    • (iii) Percentage return, on the shares bought on the whole.
  • Q6. A man invests a certain sum of money in 6% hundred-rupee shares at Rs.12 premium. When the shares fell to Rs.96, he sold out all the shares bought and invested the proceed in 10%, ten-rupee shares at Rs.8. If the change in his income is Rs.540, Find the sum invested originally

Mathematics – Chapter 10 – Arithmetic Progression

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Mathematics –

Chapter 14 – Equation of a Line

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Mathematics – Chapter 18 – Tangents and Intersecting Chords

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Mathematics – Chapter 8 – Remainder and Factor Theorems 

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Mathematics – Chapter 17 – Circles  

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Mathematics – Chapter 9 – Matrices 

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Mathematics – Chapter 1 – GST

  • Q1. The tax invoice of a telecom service in Meerut shows cost of services provided by it as Rs. 750. If the GST rate is 18%, find the amount of the bill.
  • Q2. Mr. Pankaj took Health Insurance Policy for his family and paid Rs. 900 as SGST. Find the total annual premium paid by him for this policy, rate of GST being 18%.
  • Q3. Asharaf went to see a movie. He wanted to purchase a movie ticket for Rs. 80. As the ticket for Rs. 80 was not available, he purchased a ticket for Rs. 120 of upper class. How much extra GST did he pay for the ticket? (GST for a ticket below Rs. 100 is 18% and GST for a ticket above Rs. 100 is 28%)
  • Q4. Goods/services are sold from Kota (Rajasthan) to Mumbai for Rs. 20,000 and then from Mumbai to Pune. If the rate of GST is 12% and the profit made at Mumbai is Rs. 5000; find the net GST paid at Pune, if the dealer at Pune is the end-user.

Biology – Chapter 09 – The Nervous System

  • Q1. Name the following:
    • (a) The fluid that is present inside and outside the brain.
    • (b) The junction between two nerve cells.
    • (c) The part of the brain which is concerned with memory.
    • (d) The part of the human brain which controls body temperature.
  • Q2. Mention, the wherein human body are the following located and state their main functions:
    • (a) Corpus callosum
    • (b) Central canal
  • Q3. Differentiate between the following pairs with reference to the aspects in brackets.
    • (a) Cerebrum and cerebellum (function)
    • (b) Sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system (overall effect on the body)
    • (c) Sensory nerve and motor nerve (direction of impulse carried)
    • (d) Medulla oblongata and cerebellum (function)
    • (e) Cerebrum and spinal cord (arrangement of cytons and exons of neurons)
  • Q4. State the functions of the following:
    • (a) Synapse
    • (b) Association neuron
    • (c) Medullary sheath
    • (d) Medulla oblongata
    • (e) Cerebellum
    • (f) Cerebrospinal fluid

Chemistry – Chapter 3 – Acids, Bases and Salts

  • Q1. What do you understand by an alkali? Give two examples of:
    • (a) Strong alkalis 
    • (b) Weak alkalis
  • Q2. What is the difference between:
    • (a) an alkali and a base,
    • (b) the chemical nature of an aqueous solution of HCl and an aqueous solution of NH3.
  • Q3. Write balanced equations to satisfy each statement.
    • (a) Acid + Active metal → Salt + Hydrogen
    • (b) Acid + base → Salt + Water
    • (c) Acid + Carbonate or bicarbonate → Salt + Water + carbon dioxide
    • (d) Acid + sulphite or bisulphite → salt + water + sulphur dioxide
    • (e) Acid + Sulphide → Salt + hydrogen sulphide
  • Q4. You are supplied with five solutions: A, B, C, D and E with pH values as follows:
    • A = 1.8, B = 7, C = 8.5, D = 13 and E = 5
    • Classify these solutions as neutral, slightly or strongly acidic and slightly or strongly alkaline.
    • Which solution would be most likely to liberate hydrogen with:
      • (a) Magnesium powder
      • (b) Powered zinc metal. Give a word equation for each reaction.
  • Q5. Distinguish between:
    • (a) A common acid-base indicator and a universal indicator
    • (b) The acidity of bases and basicity of acids
    • (c) Acid and alkali (other than indicators)

Physics – Chapter 11 – Calorimetry

  • Q1. Write the expression for the heat energy Q received by m kg of a substance of specific heat capacity c J kg-1 K-1 when it is heated through △ to C.
  • Q2.Same amount of heat is supplied to two liquids A and B. The liquid A shows a greater rise in temperature. What can you say about the heat capacity of A as compared to that of B?
  • Q3. Discuss the role of high specific heat capacity of water with reference to climate in coastal areas.
  • Q4. What property of water makes it an effective coolant?
  • Q5. 
    • (a)What do you understand by the change of phase of substance?
    • (b)Is there any change in temperature during the change of phase?
    • (c)Does the substance absorb or liberate any heat during the change of phase?
    • (d) What is the name given to the energy absorbed during a phase change?

Q6. 1 kg of ice at 0o is heated at a constant rate and its temperature is recorded after every 30 seconds till steam is formed at 100o C. Draw a temperature-time graph to represent the change of phases.

Chemistry – Chapter 6 – Electrolysis

  • Q1. Give reasons for the following:
    • Electrolysis of molten lead bromide is considered to be a reaction in which oxidation and reduction go side by side, i.e., a redox reaction.
    • The blue colour of aqueous copper sulphate fades when it is electrolysed using platinum electrodes.
    • Lead bromide undergoes electrolytic dissociation in the molten state but it is a non-electrolyte in the solid-state.
    • Aluminium is extracted from its oxide by electrolytic reduction and not by conventional reducing agents.
    • The ratio of hydrogen and oxygen formed at the cathode and anode is 2:1 by volume.
    • In the electrolysis of acidified water dilute sulphuric acid is preferred to dilute nitric acid for acidification.
    • Ammonia is unionized in the gaseous state but in the aqueous solution, it is a weak electrolyte.
    • A graphite anode is preferred to other inert electrodes during electrolysis of fused lead bromide.
    • For electroplating with silver, silver nitrate is not used as an electrolyte.
    • Carbon tetrachloride is a liquid but does not conduct electricity.
    • Potassium is not extracted by electrolysis of its aqueous salt solution.
  • Q2. Element X is a metal with valency 2. Element Y is a non-metal with valency 3.
    • Write equations to show how X and Y form ions.
    • If Y is a diatomic gas, write an equation for the direct combination of X and Y to form a compound.
    • If the compound formed between X and Y is melted and an electric current is passed through the molten compound, element X will be obtained at the ________ and Y at the ________ of the electrolytic cell.
  • Q3. Write two applications of electrolysis in which anode diminishes in mass.
  • Q4. A strip of copper is placed in four different colorless salt solutions. They are KNO3, AgNO3, Zn(NO3)2, Ca(NO3)2. Which of the solutions will finally turn blue?

Chemistry – Chapter 1 – Periodic Table, Periodic Properties and Variations of Properties

  • Q1. Fill in the blanks by selecting the correct word from the brackets:
    • (i) If an element has a low ionization energy then it is likely to be ______________ (metallic / non-metallic).
    • (ii) If an element has seven electrons in its outermost shell then it is likely to have the ______________ (largest / smallest) atomic size among all the elements in the same period. 
  • Q2. (c) Rewrite the following sentences by using the correct symbol > (greater than) or < (less than) in the blanks given:
    • 1. The ionization potential of potassium is _________________ that of sodium.
    • 2. The electronegativity of lodine is ___________ that of Chlorine. 
  • Q3. 
    • (a) Metals are good _____________ (oxidising agents/reducing agents) because they are electron __________ (acceptors/donors).
    • (b) An element with the atomic number 19 will most likely combine chemically with the element whose atomic number is:
  • Q4. 
    • (a) Among the elements given below, the element with the least electronegativity is
      • (i) Lithium 
      • (ii) Carbon
      • (iii) Boron 
      • (iv) Fluorine
    • (b) The metals of Group 2 from top to bottom are Be, Mg, Ca, Sr and Ba.
      • (i) Which of these elements will form ions most readily and why?
      • (ii) State the common feature in the electronic configuration of all these elements.

Biology – Chapter 09 – The Nervous System

  • Q1.  Which one of the following pairs of brain part and its function is not correctly matched?
    • (a) Cerebrum – memory
    • (b) Cerebellum – balance of body
    • (c) Medulla oblongata – controls activities of internal organs
    • (d) Pons – consciousness
  • Q2. A mixed nerve is one which
    • (a) Carries sensation from 2 or more different sense organs
    • (b) Contains both sensory and motor fibres
    • (c) Has a common root but branches into two or more nerves to different organs
    • (d) Has two or more roots from different parts of the brain
  • Q3. Name the following:
    • (a) The fluid that is present inside and outside the brain.
    • (b) The junction between two nerve cells.
    • (c) The part of the brain which is concerned with memory.
    • (d) The part of the human brain which controls body temperature.
  • Q4. Mention, the wherein human body are the following located and state their main functions:
    • (a) Corpus callosum
    • (b) Central canal
  • Q5. Differentiate between the following pairs with reference to the aspects in brackets.
    • (a) Cerebrum and cerebellum (function)
    • (b) Sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system (overall effect on the body)
    • (c) Sensory nerve and motor nerve (direction of impulse carried)
    • (d) Medulla oblongata and cerebellum (function)

Chemistry – Chapter 4 – Analytical Chemistry: Uses Of Ammonium Hydroxide And Sodium Hydroxide

  • Q1. Write the probable colour of the following salts?
    • (a) Ferrous salts 
    • (b) Ammonium salts
    • (c) Cupric salts 
    • (d) Calcium salts
    • (e) Aluminium salts
  • Q2.  Name:
    • (a) a metallic hydroxide soluble in excess of NH4OH.
    • (b) a metallic oxide soluble in excess of caustic soda solution.
    • (c) a strong alkali.
    • (d) a weak alkali.
    • (e) Two colourless metal ions.
    • (f) Two coloured metal ions.
    • (g) a metal that evolves a gas which burns with a pop sound when boiled with alkali solutions.
    • (h) Two bases which are not alkalis but dissolve in strong alkalis.
    • (i) a coloured metallic oxide which dissolves in alkalis to yield colourless solutions.
    • (j) a colourless cation, not a representative element.
  • Q3. What happens when ammonia solution is added first dropwise and then in excess to the following solutions:
    • (i) CuSO4 
    • (ii) ZnSO4 
    • (iii)FeCl3
    • Write balanced equations for these reactions.
  • Q4. Name:
    • (a) A yellow monoxide that dissolves in hot and concentrated caustic alkali.
    • (b) A white, insoluble oxide that dissolves when fused with caustic soda or caustic potash.
    • (c) A compound containing zinc in the anion.
  • Q5. What do you observe when freshly precipitated aluminum hydroxide reacts with caustic soda solution? Give a balanced equation.

Chemistry – Chapter 12 – Organic Chemistry

  • Q1. Explain in detail how methane (CH4) and ethane (C2H6) are prepared in the laboratory? 
  • Q2. What are the uses of ethane?
  • Q3. Write the equations for the following lab. preparations:
    • (a) Ethane from sodium propionate,
    • (b) Ethene from Iodoethane,
    • (c) Ethyne from calcium carbide,
    • (d) Methanol from Iodomethane.
  • Q4. Give reasons :
    • Ethyne is more reactive than ethene.
    • Ethene is more reactive than ethane.
    • Hydrocarbons are excellent fuels.
  • Q5. Write balanced equations
    • (i) when butane is burnt in oxygen
    • (ii) preparation of ethylene from ethyl alcohol.

“Happy Makar Sankranti 2024!”

 

Physics – Chapter 11 – Calorimetry

  • Q1. Define the term heat.
  • Q2. Name the S.I. unit of heat.
  • Q3. Define the term calorie. How is it related to joule?
  • Q4. Define the term heat capacity and state its S.I. unit.
  • Q5. Define the term specific heat capacity and state its S.I. unit.
  • Q6. How is the heat capacity of a body related to the specific heat capacity of its substance?
  • Q7. 
    • (a) What is calorimeter?
    • (b)Name the material of which it is made of. Give two reasons for using the material stated by you.
    • (c) Out of the three metals A, B and C of specific heat 900 J kg-1 °C-1, 380 J kg-1 °C-1 and 460 J kg-1 °C-1 respectively, which will you prefer for calorimeter? Given reason.
    • (d) How is the loss of heat due to radiation minimised in a calorimeter?
  • Q8. By imparting heat to a body, its temperature rises by 150C. What is the corresponding rise in temperature on the Kelvin scale?
  • Q9. 
    • (a)Calculate the heat capacity of a copper vessel of mass 150 g if the specific heat capacity of copper is 410 J kg-1 K-1.
    • (b)How much heat energy will be required to increase the temperature of the vessel in part (a) from 25oC to 35oC?

Physics – Chapter 8 – Current Electricity

  • Q1. In a conductor, 6.25 × 1016 electrons flow from its end A to B in 2 s. Find the current flowing through the conductor. (e = 1.6 × 10-19 C)
  • Q2. Calculate the current flowing through a wire of resistance 5 Ohm connected to a battery of potential difference 3 V.
  • Q3. A wire of resistance 9 Ohm having length 30 cm is tripled on itself. What is its new resistance?
  • Q4. State two differences between the e.m.f. and terminal voltage of a cell.
  • Q5. Name two factors on which the internal resistance of a cell depends and state how does it depend on the factors stated by you.
  • Q6. A battery of e.m.f. 3.0 V supplies current through a circuit in which resistance can be changed. A high resistance voltmeter is connected across the battery. When the current is 1.5 A, the voltmeter reads 2.7 V. Find the internal resistance of the battery.

Physics – Ch 10 – Electromagnetism

  • Q1. By using a compass needle, describe how you can demonstrate that there is a magnetic field around a current-carrying conductor.
  • Q2. Draw a diagram showing the direction of three magnetic field lines due to a straight wire carrying a current. Also show the direction of current in the wire.
  • Q3. State a law, which determines the direction of the magnetic field around a current-carrying wire.
  • Q4. What will happen to a compass needle when the compass is placed below a wire with a needle parallel to it and a current is made to flow through the wire? Give a reason to justify your answer.
  • Q5. Draw a labelled diagram showing the three magnetic field lines of a loop carrying current. Mark the direction of current and the direction of the magnetic field by arrows in your diagram.

Physics – Chapter 9 – Electrical Power and Household Circuits

  • Q1. At what voltage and frequency is the electric power generated at the power generating station?
  • Q2. 
    • (a) At what voltage is the electric power from the generating station transmitted? Give reasons for your answer.
    • (b) What is the nature of the current transmitted from the power station?
  • Q3. Explain with the aid of a simple diagram, the transmission of electric power from the generating station to your house.
  • Q4. 
    • (a) Name the three connecting wires used in a household circuit.
    • (b) Which two wires mentioned in part (a) are at the same potential?
    • (c) In which of the wires stated in part (a) the switch is connected?
  • Q5. State the function of each of the following in a house circuiting:
    • (a) kWh meter, 
    • (b) the main fuse, and 
    • (c) the main switch

Physics – Chapter 6 – Spectrum

  • Q1. Name three factors on which the deviation produced by a prism depends and state how does it depend on the factors stated by you.
  • Q2. How does the deviation produced by a triangular prism depend on the colour (or wavelength) of light incident on it? 
  • Q3. Name the seven prominent colours of the white light spectrum in order of their increasing frequencies.
  • Q4. The wavelengths for the light of red and blue colours are nearly 7.8 x 10⁻⁷m and 4.8 x 10⁻⁷ m respectively.
    • (a)Which colour has the greater speed in a vacuum?
    • (b)Which colour has the greater speed in glass?
  • Q5. Define the term dispersion of light.
  • Q6. Calculate the frequency of yellow light of wavelength 550 nm. The speed of light is 3 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹.
  • Q7. Answer the following:
    • (a) Give a list of at least five radiations, in the order of their increasing wavelength, which make up the complete electromagnetic spectrum.
    • (b) Name the radiation mentioned by you in part (a) which has the highest penetrating power.

Chemistry – Chapter 03 – Acids, Bases and Salts Solutions

  • Q1. Distinguish between:
    • (a) A common acid-base indicator and a universal indicator
    • (b) The acidity of bases and basicity of acids
    • (c) Acid and alkali (other than indicators)
  • Q2. What should be added to
    • (a) Increase the pH value
    • (b) Decrease the pH value of a neutral solution?
  • Q3. Answer the following:
    • (a) A solution has a pH of 7. Explain how you would (i) increase its pH; (ii) decrease its pH
    • (b) If a solution changes the colour of litmus from red to blue, what can you say about its pH?
    • (c) What can you say about the pH of a solution that liberates carbon dioxide from sodium carbonate?

Chemistry – Chapter 12 – Organic Chemistry

  • Q1. What are the physical and chemical properties of alcohol?
  • Q2. What are carboxylic acids?  Give the general formula of carboxylic acids.
  • Q3. What are the uses of ethane? 
  • Q4. What is pyrolysis or cracking? Explain with an example.
  • Q5. What happens when ethylene (C₂H₄) is passed through the alkaline KMnO₄ solution?

Chemistry – Chapter 4 – Analytical Chemistry: Uses Of Ammonium Hydroxide And Sodium Hydroxide

  • Q1. Write the probable colour of the following salts?
    • (a) Ferrous salts 
    • (b) Ammonium salts
    • (c) Cupric salts 
    • (d) Calcium salts
    • (e) Aluminium salts
  • Q2. Answer the following:
    • (a) a metallic hydroxide soluble in excess of NH4OH.
    • (b) a metallic oxide soluble in excess of caustic soda solution.
    • (c) a strong alkali.
    • (d) a weak alkali.
    • (e) Two colourless metal ions.
    • (f) Two coloured metal ions.
    • (g) a metal that evolves a gas which burns with a pop sound when boiled with alkali solutions.
    • (h) Two bases which are not alkalis but dissolve in strong alkalis.
    • (i) a coloured metallic oxide which dissolves in alkalis to yield colourless solutions.
    • (j) a colourless cation, not a representative element.

Chemistry – Ch 03 – Acids, Bases and Salts Solutions

  • Q1.  What do you understand by an alkali? Give two examples of:
    • (a) Strong alkalis 
    • (b) Weak alkalis
  • Q2. What is the difference between:
    • (a) an alkali and a base,
    • (b) the chemical nature of an aqueous solution of HCl and an aqueous solution of NH3.
  • Q3. Name the ions furnished by:
    • (a) bases in solution, 
    • (b) an acid.
  • Q4. ls PbO2 a base or not? Comment.
  • Q5. How would you obtain:
    • (a) A base from another base
    • (b) An alkali from a base
    • (c) Salt from another salt?
  • Q6. Write balanced equations to satisfy each statement.
    • (a) Acid + Active metal → Salt + Hydrogen
    • (b) Acid + base → Salt + Water
    • (c) Acid + Carbonate or bicarbonate → Salt + Water + carbon dioxide
    • (d) Acid + sulphite or bisulphite → salt + water + sulphur dioxide
    • (e) Acid + Sulphide → Salt + hydrogen sulphide

Biology – Chapter 6 – Photosynthesis – Provider Of Food For All

  • Q1. Chlorophyll in a leaf is required for
    • a) breaking down water into hydrogen and oxygen
    • b) emitting green light
    • c) trapping light energy
    • d) storing starch in the leaves
  • Q2. If the rate of respiration becomes more than the rate of photosynthesis, plants will:
    • a) continue to live, but will not be able to store food
    • b) be killed instantly
    • c) grow more vigorously because more energy will be available
    • d) stop growing and die gradually of starvation
  • Q3. A plant is kept in a dark cupboard for 48 hours before conducting any experiment on photosynthesis in order to
    • a) remove chlorophyll from leaves
    • b) remove starch from the leaves
    • c) ensure that no photosynthesis occurred
    • d) ensure that the leaves are free from starch
  • Q4.  Are the following statements true or false? Give reason in support of your answer.
    • (a) The rate of photosynthesis continues to rise as long as the intensity of light rises.
    • (b) The outside atmospheric temperature has no effect on the rate of photosynthesis.
    • (c) If you immerse a leaf intact on the plant in ice cold water, it will continue to photosynthesize in bright sunshine.
    • (d) Destarching of the leaves of a potted plant can occur only at night.
  • Q5. State any four differences between photosynthesis and respiration.

Mathematics – Chapter 10 – Arithmetic Progression

  • Q1. Which of the following sequences are in arithmetic progression?
    • (i) 2, 6, 10, 14, ….
    • (ii) 15, 12, 9, 6, ….
    • (iii) 5, 9, 12, 18, ….
    • (iv) 1/2, 1/3, 1/4, 1/5, ….
  • Q2. If the pth term of an A.P. is (2p + 3); find the A.P.
  • Q3.  If the 3rd and the 9th terms of an arithmetic progression are 4 and -8 respectively, which term of it is zero?
  • Q4. Find the sum of 28 terms of an A.P. whose nth term is 8n – 5.
  • Q5. The angles of a quadrilateral are in A.P. with common difference 20o.

Chemistry – Chapter 2 – Chemical Bonding

  • Q1. Define a coordinate bond and give conditions for its formation.
  • Q2. State the type of bonding in the following molecules:
    • (a) Water 
    • (b) Calcium oxide
    • (c) Hydroxyl ion 
    • (d) Methane
    • (e) Ammonium ion 
    • (f) Ammonium chloride
  • Q3.  
    • (a) How many atoms of each kind are present in the following molecules: 
      • calcium oxide, 
      • chlorine, 
      • water, 
      • carbon tetrachloride?
    • (b) How many electrons are required by each atom mentioned in (a) to attain the nearest noble gas configuration?
  • Q4. 
    • (a) In the formation of magnesium chloride (by a direct combination between magnesium and chloride), name the substance that is oxidized and the substance that is reduced.
    • (b) What are the terms defined below?
      • (i) A bond formed by a shared pair of electrons, each bonding atom contributes one electron to the pair.
      • (ii) A bond formed by a shared pair of electrons with both electrons coming from the same atom.

Physics – Chapter 3 – Machines

  • Q1. 
    • (a) What do you understand by a simple machine?
    • (b) State the principle of an ideal machine.
  • Q2. Name a machine for each of the following use:
    • (a) to multiply the force,
    • (b) to change the point of application of force,
    • (c) to change the direction of force,
    • (d) to obtain the gain in speed.
  • Q3. What do you understand by an ideal machine? How does it differ from a practical machine?
  • Q4. Explain the term mechanical advantage. State its unit.
  • Q5. Define the term velocity ratio. State its unit.

Physics – Ch 02 – Work, Energy and Power

  • Q1. A force F acts on a body and displaces it by a distance S in a direction at an angle θ with the direction of force.
    • (a) Write the expression for the work done by the force.
    • (b) What should be the angle between force and displacement so that the work done is
      • (i) zero,
      • (ii) maximum?
  • Q2. State the condition when the work done by a force is (i) positive, (ii) negative. Explain with the help of examples.
  • Q3. Give an example when work done by the force of gravity acting on a body is zero even though the body gets displaced from its initial position.
  • Q4. What are the S.I. and C.G.S. units of work? How are they related? Establish the relationship.
  • Q5. Is it possible that no transfer of energy takes place even when a force is applied to a body?

2023

December

Biology – Ch 12 – The Endocrine System

  • Q1. Exophthalmic goitre is caused due to the overactivity of
    • (a) thymus 
    • (b) thyroid
    • (c) parathyroid 
    • (d) adrenal cortex
  • Q2. The hormone produced by adrenal medulla.
  • Q3. What would a child suffer from, if there was hypo secretion from his thyroid?
  • Q4. Choose the odd one out from each series:
    • (a) The glands – thyroid, adrenal, pituitary, prostate
    • (b) The conditions – cretinism, myxoedema, goiter, scurvy
    • (c) The hormones- insulin, glucagon, cretinism, thyroxine
    • (d) The hormonal sources – adrenal cortex, adrenal medulla, cortisone, pituitary
  • Q5. How do endocrine glands differ from other glands?

Chemistry – Ch 12 – Organic Chemistry

  • Q1. What are the uses of ethane? 
  • Q2. Define the substitution reaction with examples?
  • Q3. Give the structure for the following compounds?
    • Prop-1-ene.
    • Ethanol.
    • 3-hexene.
    • Vinegar.
    • Acetone.
  • Q4. What happens when ethylene (C2H4) is passed through the alkaline KMnO4 solution?
  • Q5. What is pyrolysis or cracking? Explain with an example.

Chemistry – Ch 12 – Organic Chemistry

  • Q1. What is Isomerism?
  • Q2. What is a homologous series?
  • Q3. Write the structural formula for the given compounds.
    • 3- Methylhexane
    • 4-Methyl−2-butyne 
    • 2-Butene
    • 2- Butyne 
    • 3,3-Dimethyl hexane
  • Q4. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions:
    • When ethane reacts with chlorine.
    • When ethane gas is treated with HCl.
    • When ethane is burnt in excess of oxygen.
  • Q5. Explain in detail how methane (CH4) and ethane (C2H6) are prepared in the laboratory?

Biology – Ch 09 – The Excretory System

  • Q1. Name the following:
    • (a) The organ which produces urea.
    • (b) The outer region of the kidney containing the Bowman’s capsule.
    • (c) The tuft of capillaries inside the Bowman’s capsule.
    • (d) The part of kidney tubules where the term urine is first used for the fluid in it.
    • (e) The vein in which urea concentration is maximum.
  • Q2. Write down the functional activity of the following parts:
    • (a) Glomerulus
    • (b) Henle’s loop
    • (c) Ureter
    • (e) Urethra
  • Q3. Why is excretion necessary? Name the common excretory substances in our body.

Biology – Chapter 6 – Photosynthesis

  • Q1. Mention one difference between the following on the basis of what is given in brackets.
    • (a) Respiration and photosynthesis (gas released)
    • (b) Light and dark reactions (products formed)
    • (c) Producers and consumers (mode of nutrition)
    • (d) Grass and grasshopper (mode of nutrition)
    • (e) Chlorophyll and chloroplast (part of plant cell)
  • Q2. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate answer from the choices given in the brackets.
    • (a) The site of light reaction in the cells of a leaf is……………… (cytoplasm, stroma, grana).
    • (b) The chemical substance used to test the presence of starch in the cell of a leaf is…………… (CaCl2, iodine solution, Benedict solution).
    • (c) Stroma is the ground substance in …………… (cytoplasm, chloroplast, ribosomes).
    • (d) The dark reaction of photosynthesis is known as…………… (Hill reaction, cyclic phosphorylation, Calvin cycle).
    • (e) In the flowering plants, food is transported in the form of……………………… (sucrose, glucose, starch).

Biology – Chapter 6 – Photosynthesis

  • Q1) The category of organisms that prepare their own food from basic raw materials.
  • Q2) The kind of plastids found in the mesophyll cells of the leaf.
  • Q3) The compound which stores energy in the cells.
  • Q4) The first form of food substance produced during photosynthesis.
  • Q5) The source of carbon dioxide for aquatic plants.
  • Q6) The tissue that transports manufactured type of starch from leaves to all parts of the plants.

Santa Claus is coming! Hope you’ve been a good kid. What could be your surprise?!

 

Well, no assignment today!

Chemistry – Ch 1 – Periodic Table, Periodic Properties and Variations of Properties
  • Q1. Give reason:
    • (i) The ionization potential of the element increases across a period.
    • (ii) Alkali metals are good reducing agents. 
    • (c) There are three elements E, F, G with atomic numbers 19, 8 and 17 respectively. Classify these elements as metals and non-metals.
  • Q2.  An atomic number of an element Z is 16. Answer the following:
    • (i) State the period and group to which Z belongs.
    • (ii) Is Z a metal or a non-metal? 
  • Q3.  State the formula of the compound between Z and hydrogen.
  • Q4.  M is a metal above hydrogen in the activity series and its oxide has the formula M2O. This oxide, when dissolved in water, forms the corresponding hydroxide which is a good conductor of electricity. In the above context, answer the following:
    • (i) What kind of combination exists between M and O?
    • (ii) State the number of electrons in the outermost shell of M.
    • (iii) Name the group to which M belongs.
Biology – Chapter 10 – Endocrine Glands – The Producers of Chemical Messengers
  • Q1. Answer the following:
    • 1) The three hormones produced by pancreas.
    • 2) The hormone produced by adrenal medulla.
    • 3) The condition caused by the over secretion of insulin.
    • 4) The hormone secreted by beta cells of the islets of Langerhans.
    • 5) The hormone which increases blood pressure.
    • 6) The hormone causing more urine formation.
    • 7) The hormone which stimulates the entire sympathetic nervous system.
  •  Q2. Mention any two differences between a hormone and an enzyme.
  • Q3. Name the two kinds of diabetes? Mention their symptoms and the causes.
  • State the main function of: 
    • (1) glucagon and 
    • (2) insulin.
Biology – Ch 05 – Transpiration
  • Q1. Fill in the blanks:
    • (a) Transpiration is the loss of water as water ………… from the ………… parts of the plant.
    • (b) Closing of ………… and shedding of leaves reduce ………….
    • (c) Transpiration helps in creating …………. force and in eliminating excess………….
  • Q2. Give a suitable explanation for the following:
    • A higher rate of transpiration is recorded on a windy day rather than on a calm day.
    • Water transpired is the water absorbed.
    • Cork and bark of trees help in preventing loss of water.
Physics – Ch 01 – Force
  • Q1. A steering wheel of diameter 0.5m is rotated anti-clockwise by applying two forces each of magnitude 5N. Draw a diagram to show the application of forces and calculate the moment of forces applied. 
  • Q2. When a boy weighing 20 kgf sits at one end of a 4m long see-saw, it gets depressed at its end. How can it be brought to the horizontal position by a man weighing 40 kgf? 
  • Q3. Describe a simple experiment to verify the principle of moments, if you are supplied with a meter rule, a fulcrum and two springs with slotted weights.
  • Q4. Differentiate between the centripetal and centrifugal force.

Physics – Ch 01 – Force

  • Q1. Define the moment of force and state its S.I. unit.
  • Q2. Define the moment of a couple. Write its S.I unit.
  • Q3. What do you mean by equilibrium of a body?
  • Q4. Explain the meaning of uniform circular motion. Why is such motion said to be accelerated?

Physics – Ch 8 – Current Electricity

  • Q1. Define the term electric potential. State it’s S.I. unit.
  • Q2. 
    • State whether the current is a scalar or vector? What does the direction of current convey?
    • State whether the potential is a scalar or vector? What does the positive and negative sign of potential convey
  • Q3. State Ohm’s law and draw a neat labelled circuit diagram containing a battery, a key, a voltmeter, an ammeter, a rheostat and an unknown resistance to verify it.
  • Q4. 
    • (a) Draw a V-I graph for a conductor obeying Ohm’s law.
    • (b) What does the slope of V-I graph for a conductor represent?
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